GENTECH archive 8.96-97
Letter to European Parliament
- To: E.Stein@em.uni-frankfurt.de
- Subject: Letter to European Parliament
- From: Jon Buckingham <firstname.lastname@example.org>
- Date: Thu, 16 Jan 1997 09:48:32 GMT
- Cc: email@example.com
- In-Reply-To: E.Stein@em.uni-frankfurt.de's message of Wed, 15 Jan 97 00:47:13 +0100 <199701142347.AAA10625@lilly.ping.de>
> Processed foods, such as oil,
> lecithin, and syrup, are often claimed to be free of transgenic proteins and
> other compounds and thus no different from their non-genetically engineered
> counterparts. This is fallacious reasoning because these prepared foods are
> never chemically pure, and will therefore contain a certain amount of these
> genetically engineered proteins. Thus, even heavily processed foods cannot be
> argued to be substantially equivalent, since they will be contaminated with
> genetically engineered proteins or their products.
Could you expand on this please? For those of us without indepth
technical knowledge of the subject of genetic engineering, could
you explain why "prepared foods are never chemically pure"?
On the one hand "Processed foods ... are often claimed to be free of
transgenic proteins", but then you claim this is incorrect.
I don't disbelieve you, I just want to know the justification behind
Also, is there any more info on which oils and syrups are made from
genetically engineered ingredients? (Apologies if I've missed a
previous posting on this, but I am a recent subscriber).